Wow, that’s a very comprehensive answer! Thank you so much for taking the time to explain, I really appreciate it 
I will now go and lie down in a darkened room and (try to) digest all this information!
@owainlurch - I didn’t know that mae was the verb to be, actually, so that’s really helpful to know - it is starting to make sense
Diolch diolch - here endeth my questions!! (for now anyway! 
)
You’re welcome!
Heh, I don’t think there are any quick answers once you start to get into it
But, a bit at a time, I am getting it… sometimes it seems a bit 2 steps back, but in general there is noticeable forward progress so - I am very happy!
Mind you, was there not also a bottle of vodka involved in that…? Which can also sometimes lead to brain-boggling, studies have shown…
Well, it isn’t actually, it’s the 3rd person singular thereof!! Sorry to go into Grammar, but ‘bod’ is ‘that’ or ‘be’. I’m not sure there is a Welsh equivalent to the infinitive? @garethrking - dear, kind man, can you help here?
It might have contributed to the overall effect, fair point - although most of that bottle is still sitting in our drinks rack…
It is the verb to be-- It is part of the verb to be. It is the third person singular of the verb to be. It is not a translation of the words “to be”. It is not the infinitive, but the infinitive is not the only part of the verb. 
Words like “bod” or “mynd” are often called “verb nouns”, perhaps the closest thing to an “infinitive”.
Edit- but all that is completely immaterial, of course.
Sorry Owen, being pedantic again, I took Samantha’s posting too literally methinks!
Roland did have a taste, but unless there was another bottle involved @aran didn’t have that much. In the planning stage I had understood there to be one lesson, one shot, amd wondered how he could be on Skype the next day even if he was sitting down.
That was how it started out, but it was always subject to fine tuning - and by the time I’d done five or six sessions, it seemed wise to haul it back to one every couple - which tailed off almost entirely in the early afternoon…
There is indeed no true infinitive in Welsh - as @owainlurch rightly says, the verbnoun is the closest thing to it. Mind you, the idea of an ‘infinitive’ in English is pretty dodgy as well…English, despite traditional terminology, hasn’t actually got a true infinitive. But what we can rejoice in is that Welsh has got a verbnoun! So…yay!!
Ah typo on my part - I meant to say what @owainlurch said - ‘from the verb’ not it is the verb! Late night posting…
But it looks like it doesn’t matter anyway as maybe it is?? 
Back to my darkened room for a lie down!
I’m trying not to honestly, but people keep telling me things haha _ 
Yes I know re grammar - to be honest there’s the same trouble in English to a lesser extent. I just find language so fascinating though, it’s hard not to ‘go down the rabbit hole’
Of course you are right! I am a product of the English Grammar School system! Logically, I can see the difference between ‘avoir’ and ‘to have’, ‘amo’ and ‘to love’, but was raised not to notice!
Diolch yn fawr for all the help and encouragement you give to all of us on this Forum!
Is that true? What about -edig? Blinedig, rhwystredig, bendigedig, etc?
Dwi wedi blino is much more common, but you will hear people using ‘blinedig’ from time to time.
You often (whatever that means! ) hear “blinedig” in my experience.
“Wedi blino” is used more commonly’ but “blinedig” is used. Especially with things like “rhy flinedig” etc.
It seems to mean exactly the same, but is a less used alternative.
Just in my experience, as I say.
Well if I encourage, I am very glad…it is my great pleasure, I assure you! You are a very nice bunch!
I hate it when that happens, don’t you?
Just for the hell of it, I Googled “ffenestr toredig”: “-edig” is certainly used as a past participle in formal written language, yr iaith ysgrifenedig: http://www.14-19nw.org.uk/mod/page/view.php?id=8751