A Couple Questions on Spanish Level 1 Lesson 5?

One thing I don’t get about this lesson is how que is used when translating I’ve got or have.

Some examples here:

todavia tengo mas que aprender

tengo algo mas que decir

tengo mas que aprender

no tengo nada mas que decir

So the “que” here always goes right before the second verb that is in the infinitive form. Is this just a rule when using tener? It still makes perfect sense when you omit it? Can someone explain this to me?

Mmmm… people would probably figure it out (or think that they’d heard the ‘que’ - we predict a lot when we’re listening), but if they noticed it would definitely sound odd.

In terms of explaining - we always encourage people to steer away from grammatical rules, because they’re almost always just an attempt to ‘understand’ a new language in terms of an existing language - the important thing is that you’ve picked up on this pattern, so you’re going to start recognising it in speech, and when you’ve practised it enough, it will start to become natural and normal for you, and it will start to sound odd to you if someone else leaves it out… :wink:

But tagging @Deborah-SSi and @gabycortinas in case they have extra insight to share… :slight_smile:

The ‘que’ in Spanish (in this case) is equivalent to the English ‘to’ for instance:

I have TO work
Tengo QUE trabajar

‘Que’ or ‘qué’ has many meanings depending on the context. But, as Aran said, don’t pay much attention to it and try to make it flow naturally in your speech :slight_smile:

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