Gareth King’s dictionary has “bad” as the first entry under drwg (as an adjective) and the first example is:
sut dach chi heddiw? – dim yn ddrwg translated as “how are you today? – Not bad.”
So I would say you were spot on for the first item.
Gareth King’s dictionary has “bad” as the first entry under drwg (as an adjective) and the first example is:
sut dach chi heddiw? – dim yn ddrwg translated as “how are you today? – Not bad.”
So I would say you were spot on for the first item.
Hi everyone. How do you pronounce the word “Cei” meaning a quay? Thanks
Cei is pronounced “kay”
Shwmae! Apologies if someone has asked this already (it’s my first time posting a question onto the forum and I’m still getting to grips with it) but what is the difference between sydd yn and sy’n? Why is it different for different verbs?
Also, why does diddorol mutate to ddiddorol when you say ‘it’s interesting’, mae’n ddiddorol?
Never apologise Holly - it’s a big forum to check out! And welcome to it - we’re all here to help and to learn
sy’n is just a contraction of sydd yn. They are both the same, and don’t depend on what verbs are used, so there’s no rule as to which to use - but the course exposes you to both so that you get used to them.
diddorol mutates because the 'n is a contraction of ‘yn’ and yn causes the mutation of adjectives.
At least I think that’s the case - it’s nearly my bedtime and it’s been a busy day, but I’m sure someone else will be along to correct me or explain better if I’ve slipped up!
Hi,
I am on Level one and lesson 23. I am wondering what the grammar rule is for saying to eat when it’s
rhywbeth i’w fwyta - something to eat
rhywbeth i fwyta - why isn’t this correct?
Why is there a ‘w’?
Diolch,
Ian
I often find weles i or welais (i) translated as I saw.
What’s the difference?
Hi Ian
I try to explain as I understand it, I hope someone with more knowledge about grammar will come and teach you better.
The " rhywbeth i’w fwyta" is the more “correct” way. The " 'w " here stands for “ei” and it means something like “something to eat it”. The Welsh grammar demands here an object.
But you’ll hear on the street many people say " rhywbeth i fwyta" and if you say it, everyone will understand (and most people even won’t notice it, if you omitted the “ei” or 'w.)
Just say what comes to your mind first or what you hear other Welsh speaker around you say.
Isn’t it more like “something for its eating”?
To add to what Brigitte (and Stephen) posted, it’s one of those things that doesn’t translate straightforwardly. The i’w is from “i ei” and the nearest ‘literal translation’ for the sentence you’ve given is “something to it eat” (i.e. “something to have it’s eating”)
The w is used because the i and ei sounds can be so close that they’d blend, so i ei (and also “i eu” become i’w.
weles is just a more colloquial version of welais - the only difference is in their pronounciation (they are otherwise exactly the same)
Because instead of an infinitive in Welsh, we have a verbnoun (which is not the same thing). So bwyta really means eating here, and rhywbeth i’w fwyta therefore means something for its eating; for + its would be i + ei, and as many grammar-lovers know, this equation gives i’w.
Does this help?
That’s brilliant. Diolch yn fawr iawn.
My one question would be does this pattern apply consistently or is this used only with certain verbs?
No, it’s a general rule.
You can get away without it, and say rhywbeth i fwyta, which as @brigitte correctly pointed out is less formal. No sane person would go to war over this either way.
So hypothetically what would “something to eat with” be i.e. meaning a fork or a spoon etc. It’s not likely to crop up much, since I could just as well ask for a fork and probably would.
The bwyta question inspired me a few more questions - I hope not too garbled!
i collected a few examples:
O’t ti’n son am y cyfansoddi, y canu - You mentioned composing, singing
Does y mean the here?
Cymeryd diddordeb yn ei ffeithiau - Taking interest in his facts
This would be infinitive in Italian, and in Welsh the verb looks just like in present tense to me (without the bod and the pronouns or subject).
In English however it ends with -ing just like these:
Mae gyrru lan trwy canol Cymru - Driving (up?) through the middle of Wales
Bawdio o gwmpas Ewrop yn gofyn am trafferth - Thumbing across Europe asking for trouble
Yn ceisio fod - Trying to be
They would all be gerundio in Italian, I don’t know English or Welsh, but most of the examples I see start with mae.
Except a few…don’t, and I can’t figure out why.
1 yes - the composing, etc
2 it’s not a present tense, it’s the verbnoun (tense-neutral) - correct translation here is indeed taking.
They have Mae at the start if you are saying .…ing IS… , because a verbnoun can be the subject of a verb like any other noun. Similarly:
ROEDD DARLLEN eich llyfr yn bleser - READING your book WAS a pleasure
BYDD CAMDREIGLO’n cael ei gosbi’n hallt o hyn ymlaen - From now on, MAKING MUTATION ERRORS WILL BE severely punished.
Rhywbeth i fwyta efo fo - note required echoing pronoun at the end.
Thanks!